Could you please explain me that why can’t we use inverse Lorentz transformation to prove length contraction in the case of two frames that are in relative motion with each other. I could derive the relation by using Lorentz transformation but not through inverse Lorentz transformation. Its exactly opposite in the case of time dilation. There we are supposed to use inverse Lorentz transformation and not Lorentz transformation. Why is it so?

(Gamini asked)

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