Why we used I proportional to V?
Can we write V proportional to I also?
Both are ok. If we are changing the current and observing the voltage, then it is V∝ I
If we are changing the voltage and observing the current, then
In general, we write
the dependent variable proportional to the independent variable
dependent variable = the quantity measured by us
independent variable = the quantity fixed by us
Why do we say speed of light,instead of velocity of light?.can we say that also?
Asked Abdur Rahman
When direction is of no relevance, it is better to say speed of light.
Why does the sun appear to rise and set though it is actually not moving?
First of all I would like to remind you that it is incorrect to say that “sun is not moving”. Sun is also moving. But the question here is, “Sun appears to rise and set not because of its motion”.
Sunset and sunrise are caused by the rotation of earth. When earth rotates, the position of sun appears to change and it seems as if the sun is revolving around the earth; just like we feel that the ground is revolving around us when we are looking out from a rotating merry-go-round.
Why are you hurt more when you punch a wall then when you punch a sponge?
Impulse of a force is the product of Force and time and is equal to the change in momentum produced.
The overall effect of a force is the change in momentum produced.
When we are punching, the effect on hitting is the stopping of the fist moving initially with a particular speed.
So, if we hit on a wall, the change in momentum takes place in a small interval of time and therefore the average force involved is very large and therefore it hurts.
When we hit on a sponge, the time taken will be more and the average force will be less and therefore it hurts less.
why an athlete continuous his motion after reaching its finish line?
This is a consequence of inertia of motion. When the athlete reaches the finishing line, he will be at a high speed. Due to inertia he continues his motion
Could you please explain me that why can’t we use inverse Lorentz transformation to prove length contraction in the case of two frames that are in relative motion with each other. I could derive the relation by using Lorentz transformation but not through inverse Lorentz transformation. Its exactly opposite in the case of time dilation. There we are supposed to use inverse Lorentz transformation and not Lorentz transformation. Why is it so?